What's the first wrong statement in the proof below that $ \triangle BCE \cong \triangle FCE$ $ \; ?$ $ \overline{BC} $ is parallel to $ \overline{DF} $. This diagram is not drawn to scale. $A$ $B$ $C$ $D$ $E$ $F$ Givens $ \angle CEF \cong \angle BAC$ $, \ $ $ \overline{CE} \cong \overline{AC}$ $, \ $ $ \angle ECF \cong \angle ACB$ $, \ $ $ \overline{CF} \cong \overline{BD}$ $, \ $ $ \angle CFE \cong \angle DBE$ $, \ $ and $\ $ $ \angle CEF \cong \angle BED$ Proof $ \triangle BCA \cong \triangle FCE$ because ASA $ \overline{BC} \cong \overline{CF}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle BCE \cong \triangle BCA$ because SSS $ \triangle BDE \cong \triangle FCE$ because AAS $ \overline{AB} \cong \overline{EF}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle BCE \cong \triangle FCE$ because SSS
Explanation: Try going through the proof yourself: write down the givens, and then see if they justify the next step for the reason given. Then do the same thing for the next step, and the next, until you run into something that you can't justify, or you finish the proof. $ \triangle BCA \cong \triangle BCE$ is the first wrong statement.